Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 06:26
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What made you recently say to yourself, “Wait. Really?”
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
What is the irony of life according to you?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?